HESI Prep - Health Assessment - [PDF Document] (2024)

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1. In an interview, the nurse may find it necessary to take notesto aid his or her memory later. Which statement is trueregarding note-taking?

A) Note-taking may impede the nurse's observation of thepatient's nonverbal behaviors.B) Note-taking allows the patient to continue at his or her ownpace as the nurse records what is said.C) Note-taking allows the nurse to shift attention away fromthe patient, resulting in an increased comfort level.D) Note-taking allows the nurse to break eye contact with thepatient, which may increase his or her level of comfort.

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A) Note-taking may impede the nurse's observation of thepatient's nonverbal behaviors.

Page: 31 Some use of history forms and note-taking may beunavoidable. But be aware that note-taking during theinterview has disadvantages. It breaks eye contact too often,and it shifts attention away from the patient, which diminisheshis or her sense of importance. It also may interrupt thepatient's narrative flow, and it impedes the observation of thepatient's nonverbal behavior.

1b

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2. During an interview, the nurse states, "Youmentioned shortness of breath. Tell me moreabout that." Which verbal skill is used with thisstatement?

A) ReflectionB) FacilitationC) Direct questionD) Open-ended question

2a

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D) Open-ended question

Page: 32 The open-ended question asks fornarrative information. It states the topic tobe discussed but only in general terms. Thenurse should use it to begin the interview, tointroduce a new section of questions, andwhenever the person introduces a new topic.

2b

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3. A nurse is taking complete health histories on all of thepatients attending a wellness workshop. On the history form,one of the written questions asks, "You don't smoke, drink, ortake drugs, do you?" This question is an example of:

A) talking too much.B) using confrontation.C) using biased or leading questions.D) using blunt language to deal with distasteful topics.

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C) using biased or leading questions.

Page: 36 This is an example of using leading orbiased questions. Asking, "You don't smoke, doyou?" implies that one answer is "better" thananother. If the person wants to please someone,he or she is either forced to answer in a waycorresponding to their implied values or is madeto feel guilty when admitting the other answer.

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4. During an interview, a parent of a hospitalizedchild is sitting in an open position. As the interviewerbegins to discuss his son's treatment, however, hesuddenly crosses his arms against his chest andcrosses his legs. This would suggest that the parent is:

A) just changing positions.B) more comfortable in this position.C) tired and needs a break from the interview.D) uncomfortable talking about his son's treatment.

4a

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D) uncomfortable talking about his son's treatment.

Page: 37 Note the person's position. An open positionwith the extension of large muscle groups showsrelaxation, physical comfort, and a willingness toshare information. A closed position with the armsand legs crossed tends to look defensive and anxious.Note any change in posture. If a person in a relaxedposition suddenly tenses, it suggests possiblediscomfort with the new topic.

4b

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5. The nurse is interviewing a patient who has a hearingimpairment. What techniques would be most beneficial incommunicating with this patient?

A) Determine the communication method he prefers.B) Avoid using facial and hand gestures because most hearing-impaired people find this degrading.C) Request a sign language interpreter before meeting with himto help facilitate the communication.D) Speak loudly and with exaggerated facial movement whentalking with him because this helps with lip reading.

5a

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A) Determine the communication method he prefers.

Pages: 40-41 The nurse should ask the deaf person thepreferred way to communicate—by signing, lip reading, orwriting. If the person prefers lip reading, then the nurse shouldbe sure to face him or her squarely and have good lighting onthe nurse's face. The nurse should not exaggerate lipmovements because this distorts words. Similarly, shoutingdistorts the reception of a hearing aid the person may wear.The nurse should speak slowly and should supplement his orher voice with appropriate hand gestures or pantomime.

5b

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6. The nurse is performing a health interview on a patient whohas a language barrier, and no interpreter is available. Which isthe best example of an appropriate question for the nurse toask in this situation?

A) "Do you take medicine?"B) "Do you sterilize the bottles?"C) "Do you have nausea and vomiting?"D) "You have been taking your medicine, haven't you?"

6a

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A) "Do you take medicine?"

Page: 46 In a situation where there is alanguage barrier and no interpreteravailable, use simple words avoidingmedical jargon. Avoid using contractionsand pronouns. Use nouns repeatedly anddiscuss one topic at a time.

6b

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7. A female patient does not speak English well, andthe nurse needs to choose an interpreter. Which ofthe following would be the most appropriate choice?

A) A trained interpreterB) A male family memberC) A female family memberD) A volunteer college student from the foreignlanguage studies department

7a

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A) A trained interpreter

Page: 46 whenever possible, the nurse should usea trained interpreter, preferably one who knowsmedical terminology. In general, an older, moremature interpreter is preferred to a younger, lessexperienced one, and the same gender ispreferred when possible.

7b

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8. The nurse is conducting an interview. Which of thesestatements is true regarding open-ended questions? Select allthat apply.

A) They elicit cold facts.B) They allow for self-expression.C) They build and enhance rapport.D) They leave interactions neutral.E) They call for short one- to two-word answers.F) They are used when narrative information is needed.

8a

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B) They allow for self-expression.C) They build and enhance rapport.F) They are used when narrative information

Page: 32 Open-ended questions allow for self-expression, build rapport, and obtain narrativeinformation. These features enhance communicationduring an interview. The other statements areappropriate for closed or direct questions.

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9. The nurse is conducting an interview in an outpatient clinicand is using a computer to record data. Which is the best use ofthe computer in this situation? Select all that apply.

A) Collect the patient's data in a direct, face-to-face manner.B) Enter all the data as the patient states it.C) Ask the patient to wait as the nurse enters data.D) Type the data into the computer after the narrative is fullyexplored.E) Allow the patient to see the monitor during typing.

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A) Collect the patient's data in a direct, face-to-face manner.D) Type the data into the computer after the narrative is fullyexplored.E) Allow the patient to see the monitor during typing.

Page: 32 The use of a computer can become a barrier. The nurseshould begin the interview as usual by greeting the patient,establishing rapport, and collecting the patient's narrative storyin a direct face-to-face manner. Only after the narrative is fullyexplored should the nurse type data into the computer. Whentyping, the nurse should position the monitor so that thepatient can see it.

9b

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10. During an assessment, the nurse notices that a patient ishandling a small charm that is tied to a leather strip around hisneck. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Ask the patient about the item and its significance.B) Ask the patient to lock the item with other valuables in thehospital's safe.C) Tell the patient that a family member should take valuableshome.D) No action is necessary.

10a

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A) Ask the patient about the item and itssignificance.

Page: 21 The nurse should inquire about theamulet's meaning. Amulets, such as charms,are often seen as an important means ofprotection from "evil spirits" by somecultures.

10b

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11. In the majority culture of America, coughing, sweating, anddiarrhea are symptoms of an illness. For some individuals ofMexican-American origin, however, these symptoms are anormal part of living. The nurse recognizes that this is true,probably because Mexican-Americans:

A) have less efficient immune systems and are often ill.B) consider these symptoms a part of normal living, notsymptoms of ill health.C) come from Mexico and coughing is normal and healthy there.D) are usually in a lower socioeconomic group and are morelikely to be sick.

11a

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B) consider these symptoms a part of normalliving, not symptoms of ill health.

Page: 27 The nurse needs to identify themeaning of health to the patient,remembering that concepts are derived, inpart, from the way in which members of thecultural group define health.

11b

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12. Among many Asians there is a belief in the yin/yang theory,rooted in the ancient Chinese philosophy of Tao. The nurserecognizes which statement that most accurately reflects"health" in an Asian with this belief?

A) A person is able to work and produce.B) A person is happy, stable, and feels good.C) All aspects of the person are in perfect balance.D) A person is able to care for others and function socially.

12a

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C) All aspects of the person are in perfectbalance.

Page: 21 Many Asians believe in theyin/yang theory, in which health is believedto exist when all aspects of the person are inperfect balance. The other statements do notdescribe this theory.

12b

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13. An individual who takes the magicoreligiousperspective of illness and disease is likely tobelieve that his or her illness was caused by:

A) germs and viruses.B) supernatural forces.C) eating imbalanced foods.D) an imbalance within his or her spiritualnature.

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B) supernatural forces.

Page: 21 The basic premise of themagicoreligious perspective is that the world isseen as an arena in which supernatural forcesdominate. The fate of the world and those in itdepends on the actions of supernatural forces forgood or evil. The other answers do not reflect themagicoreligious perspective.

13b

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14. If an American Indian has come to the clinic to seek helpwith regulating her diabetes, the nurse can expect that she:

A) will comply with the treatment prescribed.B) has obviously given up her beliefs in naturalistic causes ofdisease.C) may also be seeking the assistance of a shaman or medicineman.D) will need extra help in dealing with her illness and may beexperiencing a crisis of faith.

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C) may also be seeking the assistance of a shaman ormedicine man.

Page: 23 When self-treatment is unsuccessful, theindividual may turn to the lay or folk healing systems,to spiritual or religious healing, or to scientificbiomedicine. In addition to seeking help from abiomedical or scientific health care provider, patientsmay also seek help from folk or religious healers.

14b

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15. An elderly Mexican-American woman with traditional beliefs hasbeen admitted to an inpatient care unit. A culturally-sensitive nursewould:

A) contact the hospital administrator about the best course of action.B) automatically get a curandero for her because it is not culturallyappropriate for her to request one.C) further assess the patient's cultural beliefs and offer the patientassistance in contacting a curandero or priest if she desires.D) ask the family what they would like to do because Mexican-Americans traditionally give control of decisions to their families.

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C) further assess the patient's cultural beliefs and offer thepatient assistance in contacting a curandero or priest if shedesires.

Pages: 22-23 In addition to seeking help from thebiomedical/scientific health care provider, patients may alsoseek help from folk or religious healers. Some people, such asthose of Mexican-American or American Indian origins, maybelieve that the cure is incomplete unless the body, mind, andspirit are also healed (although the division of the person intoparts is a Western concept).

15b

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16. The nurse is reviewing concepts of cultural aspects of pain.Which statement is true regarding pain?

A) All patients will behave the same way when in pain.B) Just as patients vary in their perceptions of pain, so will theyvary in their expressions of pain.C) Cultural norms have very little to do with pain tolerance,because pain tolerance is always biologically determined.D) A patient's expression of pain is largely dependent on theamount of tissue injury associated with the pain.

16a

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B) Just as patients vary in their perceptions of pain,so will they vary in their expressions of pain.

Page: 25 In addition to expecting variations in painperception and tolerance, the nurse should expectvariations in the expression of pain. It is well knownthat individuals turn to their social environment forvalidation and comparison. The other statements areincorrect.

16b

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17. The nurse recognizes that working with children with adifferent cultural perspective may be especially difficultbecause:

A) children have spiritual needs that are influenced by theirstages of development.B) children have spiritual needs that are direct reflections ofwhat is occurring in their homes.C) religious beliefs rarely affect the parents' perceptions of theillness.D) parents are often the decision makers, and they have noknowledge of their children's spiritual needs.

17a

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A) children have spiritual needs that areinfluenced by their stages of development.

Page: 20. Illness during childhood may be anespecially difficult clinical situation. Children, aswell as adults, have spiritual needs that varyaccording to the child's developmental level andthe religious climate that exists in the family. Theother statements are not correct.

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18. When providing culturally competent care, nurses mustincorporate cultural assessments into their health assessments.Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating anassessment of cultural beliefs with an elderly American Indianpatient?

A) "Are you of the Christian faith?"B) "Do you want to see a medicine man?"C) "How often do you seek help from medical providers?"D) "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?"

18a

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D) "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are importantto you?"

Page: 17. The nurse needs to assess the culturalbeliefs and practices of the patient. American Indiansmay seek assistance from a medicine man or shaman,but the nurse should not assume this. An open-endedquestion regarding cultural and spiritual beliefs isbest used initially when performing a culturalassessment.

18b

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19. When planning a cultural assessment,the nurse should include which component?

A) Family historyB) Chief complaintC) Medical historyD) Health-related beliefs

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D) Health-related beliefs

Pages: 19-20. Health-related beliefs andpractices are one component of a culturalassessment. The other items reflect otheraspects of the patient's history.

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20. When the nurse is evaluating the reliability of a patient'sresponses, which of these statements would be correct? Thepatient:

A. has a history of drug abuse and therefore is not reliable.B. provided consistent information and therefore is reliable.C. smiled throughout interview and therefore is assumedreliable.D. would not answer questions concerning stress and thereforeis not reliable.

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B. provided consistent information andtherefore is reliable.

Page: 50. A reliable person always gives thesame answers, even when questions arerephrased or are repeated later in theinterview. The other statements are notcorrect.

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21. In recording the childhood illnesses of apatient who denies having had any, which note bythe nurse would be most accurate?

A. Patient denies usual childhood illnesses.B. Patient states he was a "very healthy" child.C. Patient states sister had measles, but he didn't.D. Patient denies measles, mumps, rubella,chickenpox, pertussis, and strep throat.

21a

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D. Patient denies measles, mumps, rubella,chickenpox, pertussis, and strep throat.

Page: 51. Childhood illnesses include measles,mumps, rubella, chickenpox, pertussis, and strepthroat. Avoid recording "usual childhoodillnesses" because an illness common in theperson's childhood may be unusual today (e.g.,measles).

21b

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22. The mother of a 16-month-old toddler tellsthe nurse that her daughter has an earache.What would be an appropriate response?

A. "Maybe she is just teething."B. "I will check her ear for an ear infection."C. "Are you sure she is really having pain?"D. "Please describe what she is doing to indicateshe is having pain."

22a

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D. "Please describe what she is doing to indicate sheis having pain."

Page: 60. With a very young child, ask the parent,"How do you know the child is in pain?" Pulling atears alerts parent to ear pain. The statements aboutteething and questioning whether the child is reallyhaving pain do not explore the symptoms, whichshould be done before a physical examination.

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23. A 5-year-old boy is being admitted to thehospital to have his tonsils removed. Whichinformation should the nurse collect before thisprocedure?

A. The child's birth weightB. The age at which he crawledC. Whether he has had the measlesD. Reactions to previous hospitalizations

23a

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D. Reactions to previous hospitalizations

Assess how the child reacted tohospitalization and any complications. If thechild reacted poorly, he or she may be afraidnow and will need special preparation forthe examination that is to follow. The otheritems are not significant for the procedure.

23b

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24. The nurse is preparing to do a functional assessment. Whichstatement best describes the purpose of a functionalassessment?

A. It assesses how the individual is coping with life at home.B. It determines how children are meeting developmentalmilestones.C. It can identify any problems with memory the individual maybe experiencing.D. It helps to determine how a person is managing day-to-dayactivities.

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D. It helps to determine how a person ismanaging day-to-day activities.

Page: 67. The functional assessmentmeasures how a person manages day-to-dayactivities. The other answers do not reflectthe purpose of a functional assessment.

24b

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25. The nurse is performing a functional assessmenton an 82-year-old patient who recently had a stroke.Which of these questions would be most important toask?

A. "Do you wear glasses?"B. "Are you able to dress yourself?"C. "Do you have any thyroid problems?"D. "How many times a day do you have a bowelmovement?"

25a

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B. "Are you able to dress yourself?"

Page: 67. Functional assessment measureshow a person manages day-to-day activities.For the older person, the meaning of healthbecomes those activities that they can orcannot do. The other responses do not relateto functional assessment.

25b

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26. The nurse is conducting a developmental history on a 5-year-old child. Which questions are appropriate to ask theparents for this part of the assessment? Select all that apply.

A. "How much junk food does your child eat?"B. "How many teeth has he lost, and when did he lose them?"C. "Is he able to tie his shoelaces?"D. "Does he take a children's vitamin?"E. "Can he tell time?"F. "Does he have any food allergies?"

26a

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B. "How many teeth has he lost, and when did he lose them?"C. "Is he able to tie his shoelaces?"E. "Can he tell time?"

Page: 61. Questions about tooth loss, ability to tell time, andability to tie shoelaces are appropriate questions for adevelopmental assessment. Questions about junk food intakeand vitamins are part of a nutritional history. Questions aboutfood allergies are not part of a developmental history.

26b

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27. During an examination, the nurse can assessmental status by which activity?

A) Examining the patient's electroencephalogramB) Observing the patient as he or she performs an IQtestC) Observing the patient and inferring health ordysfunctionD) Examining the patient's response to a specific setof questions

27a

non

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C) Observing the patient and inferring health ordysfunction

Page: 71. Mental status cannot be scrutinizeddirectly like the characteristics of skin or heartsounds. Its functioning is inferred throughassessment of an individual's behaviors, such asconsciousness, language, mood and affect, andother aspects.

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28. The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old man. As the nursebegins the mental status portion of the assessment, the nurseexpects that this patient:

A) will have no decrease in any of his abilities, includingresponse time.B) will have difficulty on tests of remote memory because thistypically decreases with age.C) may take a little longer to respond, but his generalknowledge and abilities should not have declined.D) will have had a decrease in his response time because oflanguage loss and a decrease in general knowledge.

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C) may take a little longer to respond, but his generalknowledge and abilities should not have declined.

Page: 72. The aging process leaves the parameters of mentalstatus mostly intact. There is no decrease in general knowledgeand little or no loss in vocabulary. Response time is slower thanin youth. It takes a bit longer for the brain to processinformation and to react to it. Recent memory, which requiressome processing is somewhat decreased with aging, but remotememory is not affected.

28b

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29. The nurse is preparing to do a mental status examination. Whichstatement is true regarding the mental status examination?

A) A patient's family is the best resource for information about thepatient's coping skills.B) It is usually sufficient to gather mental status information duringthe health history interview.C) It takes an enormous amount of extra time to integrate themental status examination into the health history interview.D) It is usually necessary to perform a complete mental statusexamination to get a good idea of the patient's level of functioning.

29a

non

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B) It is usually sufficient to gather mental statusinformation during the health history interview.

Page: 73. The full mental status examination is asystematic check of emotional and cognitivefunctioning. The steps described here, though,rarely need to be taken in their entirety. Usually,one can assess mental status through the contextof the health history interview.

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30. During a mental status examination, the nursewants to assess a patient's affect. The nurse shouldask the patient which question?

A) "How do you feel today?"B) "Would you please repeat the following words?"C) "Have these medications had any effect on yourpain?"D) "Has this pain affected your ability to get dressedby yourself?"

30a

non

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A) "How do you feel today?"

Page: 74. Judge mood and affect by bodylanguage and facial expression and by askingdirectly, "How do you feel today?" or "How doyou usually feel?" The mood should beappropriate to the person's place and conditionand should change appropriately with topics.

30b

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31. During a mental status assessment, which question by thenurse would best assess a person's judgment?

A) "Do you feel that you are being watched, followed, orcontrolled?"B) "Tell me about what you plan to do once you are dischargedfrom the hospital."C) "What does the statement, 'People in glass houses shouldn'tthrow stones,' mean to you?"D) "What would you do if you found a stamped, addressedenvelope lying on the sidewalk?"

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B) "Tell me about what you plan to do once you are dischargedfrom the hospital."

Pages: 76-77. A person exercises judgment when he or she cancompare and evaluate the alternatives in a situation and reachan appropriate course of action. Rather than testing theperson's response to a hypothetical situation (as illustrated inthe option with the envelope), the nurse should be moreinterested in the person's judgment about daily or long-termgoals, the likelihood of acting in response to delusions orhallucinations and the capacity for violent or suicidal behavior.

31b

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32. The nurse is performing a mental status examination.Which statement is true regarding the assessment of mentalstatus?

A) Mental status assessment diagnoses specific psychiatricdisorders.B) Mental disorders occur in response to everyday lifestressors.C) Mental status functioning is inferred through assessment ofan individual's behaviors.D) Mental status can be assessed directly, just like othersystems of the body (e.g., cardiac and breath sounds).

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C) Mental status functioning is inferred throughassessment of an individual's behaviors.

Page: 71. Mental status functioning is inferredthrough assessment of an individual's behaviors.It cannot be assessed directly like characteristicsof the skin or heart sounds.

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33. When performing a physical assessment,the technique the nurse will always use firstis:

A) palpation.B) inspection.C) percussion.D) auscultation.

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B) inspection.

Pages: 115-116. The skills requisite for the physical examinationare inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Theskills are performed one at a time and in this order (with theexception of the abdominal assessment, where auscultationtakes place before palpation and percussion). The assessment ofeach body system begins with inspection. A focused inspectiontakes time and yields a surprising amount of information.

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34. The nurse is assessing a patient's skin during an office visit. Whatis the best technique to use to best assess the patient's skintemperature? Use the:

A) fingertips because they're more sensitive to small changes intemperature.B) dorsal surface of the hand because the skin is thinner than on thepalms.C) ulnar portion of the hand because there is increased blood supplythat enhances temperature sensitivity.D) palmar surface of the hand because it is most sensitive totemperature variations because of increased nerve supply in thisarea.

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B) dorsal surface of the hand because the skin isthinner than on the palms.

The dorsa (backs) of hands and fingers are bestfor determining temperature because the skinthere is thinner than on the palms. Fingertips arebest for fine, tactile discrimination; the otherresponses are not useful for palpation.

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35. The nurse is preparing to assess a patient's abdomen bypalpation. How should the nurse proceed?

A) Avoid palpation of reported "tender" areas because this maycause the patient pain.B) Quickly palpate a tender area to avoid any discomfort thatthe patient may experience.C) Begin the assessment with deep palpation, encouraging thepatient to relax and take deep breaths.D) Start with light palpation to detect surface characteristicsand to accustom the patient to being touched.

35a

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D) Start with light palpation to detect surfacecharacteristics and to accustom the patient tobeing touched.

Pages: 115-116. Light palpation is performedinitially to detect any surface characteristics andto accustom the person to being touched. Tenderareas should be palpated last, not first.

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36. The nurse would use bimanual palpationtechnique in which situation?

A) Palpating the thorax of an infantB) Palpating the kidneys and uterusC) Assessing pulsations and vibrationsD) Assessing the presence of tenderness andpain

36a

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B) Palpating the kidneys and uterus

Pages: 115-116. Bimanual palpation requiresthe use of both hands to envelop or capturecertain body parts or organs such as thekidneys, uterus, or adnexa. The othersituations are not appropriate for bimanualpalpation.

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37. When percussing over the liver of a patient,the nurse notices a dull sound. The nurse should:

A) consider this a normal finding.B) palpate this area for an underlying mass.C) reposition the hands and attempt to percuss inthis area again.D) consider this an abnormal finding and referthe patient for additional treatment.

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A) consider this a normal finding.

Pages: 116-117. Percussion over relativelydense organs, such as the liver or spleen,will produce a dull sound. The otherresponses are not correct.

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38. The nurse is unable to palpate the right radialpulse on a patient. The best action would be to:

A) auscultate over the area with a fetoscope.B) use a goniometer to measure the pulsations.C) use a Doppler device to check for pulsations overthe area.D) check for the presence of pulsations with astethoscope.

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C) use a Doppler device to check for pulsationsover the area.

Page: 120. Doppler devices are used to augmentpulse or blood pressure measurements.Goniometers measure joint range of motion. Afetoscope is used to auscultate fetal heart tones.Stethoscopes are used to auscultate breath,bowel, and heart sounds.

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39. When performing a physical examination, safety must beconsidered to protect the examiner and the patient against thespread of infection. Which of these statements describes the mostappropriate action the nurse should take when performing aphysical examination?

A) There is no need to wash one's hands after removing gloves, aslong as the gloves are still intact.B) Wash hands before and after every physical patient encounter.C) Wash hands between the examination of each body system toprevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another.D) Wear gloves throughout the entire examination to demonstrate tothe patient concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases.

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B) Wash hands before and after every physical patientencounter.

Page: 120. The nurse should wash his or her hands before andafter every physical patient encounter; after contact with blood,body fluids, secretions, and excretions; after contact with anyequipment contaminated with body fluids; and after removinggloves. Hands should be washed after gloves have beenremoved, even if the gloves appear to be intact. Gloves shouldbe worn when there is potential contact with any body fluids.

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40. The nurse is examining an infant andprepares to elicit the Moro reflex at whichtime during the examination?

A) When the infant is sleepingB) At the end of the examinationC) Before auscultation of the thoraxD) Halfway through the examination

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B) At the end of the examination

Page: 123. Elicit the Moro or "startle" reflexat the end of the examination because it maycause the infant to cry.

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41. A 6-month-old infant has been brought to the well-child clinicfor a check-up. She is currently sleeping. What should the nurse dofirst when beginning the examination?

A) Auscultate the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping.B) Examine the infant's hips because this procedure isuncomfortable.C) Begin with the assessment of the eye and continue with theremainder of the examination in a head-to-toe approach.D) Wake the infant before beginning any portion of the examinationto obtain the most accurate assessment of body systems.

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A) Auscultate the lungs and heart while the infantis still sleeping.

Pages: 122-124. When the infant is quiet orsleeping is an ideal time to assess the cardiac,respiratory, and abdominal systems. Assessmentof the eye, ear, nose, and throat are invasiveprocedures and should be performed at the endof the examination.

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42. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Whichassessment findings would be considered normal?

A) An increase in body weight from younger yearsB) Additional deposits of fat on the thighs and lower legsC) The presence of kyphosis and flexion in the knees and hipsD) A change in overall body proportion, a longer trunk, andshorter extremities

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C) The presence of kyphosis and flexion in the kneesand hips

Page: 149. Changes that occur in the aging personinclude more prominent bony landmarks, decreasedbody weight (especially in males), a decrease insubcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, andadditional fat deposited on the abdomen and hips.Postural changes of kyphosis and slight flexion in theknees and hips also occur.

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43. When assessing the force, or strength, of apulse, the nurse recalls that it:

A) is usually recorded on a 0- to 2-point scale.B) demonstrates elasticity of the vessel wall.C) is a reflection of the heart's stroke volume.D) reflects the blood volume in the arteriesduring diastole.

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C) is a reflection of the heart's strokevolume.

Page: 134. The heart pumps an amount ofblood (the stroke volume) into the aorta. Theforce flares the arterial walls and generates apressure wave, which is felt in the peripheryas the pulse.

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44. When assessing the quality of a patient'spain, the nurse should ask which question?

A) "When did the pain start?"B) "Is the pain a stabbing pain?"C) "Is it a sharp pain or dull pain?"D) "What does your pain feel like?"

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D) "What does your pain feel like?"

Page: 164. To assess the quality of a person'spain, have the patient describe the pain inhis or her own words.

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45. The nurse is providing care for a 68-year-oldwoman who is complaining of constipation. Whatconcern exists regarding her nutritional status?

A) The absorption of nutrients may be impaired.B) The constipation may represent a food allergy.C) She may need emergency surgery for the problem.D) The gastrointestinal problem will increase hercaloric demand.

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A) The absorption of nutrients may beimpaired.

Page: 182. Gastrointestinal symptoms suchas vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation mayinterfere with nutrient intake or absorption.The other responses are not correct.

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46. During a nutritional assessment, why is it important for thenurse to ask a patient what medications he or she is taking?

A) Certain drugs can affect the metabolism of nutrients.B) The nurse needs to assess the patient for allergic reactions.C) Medications need to be documented on the record for thephysician's review.D) Medications can affect one's memory and ability to identifyfood eaten in the last 24 hours.

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A) Certain drugs can affect the metabolism ofnutrients.

Page: 183Analgesics, antacids, anticonvulsants, antibiotics,diuretics, laxatives, antineoplastic drugs, steroids,and oral contraceptives are drugs that can interactwith nutrients, impairing their digestion, absorption,metabolism, or use. The other responses are notcorrect.

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47. The nurse is reviewing the nutritional assessmentof an 82-year-old patient. Which of these factors ismost likely to affect the nutritional status of anelderly person?

A) Increase in taste and smellB) Living alone on a fixed incomeC) Change in cardiovascular statusD) Increase in gastrointestinal motility andabsorption

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B) Living alone on a fixed income

Page: 176. Socioeconomic conditions frequently affect thenutritional status of the aging adult; these factors should beclosely evaluated. Physical limitations, income, and socialisolation are frequent problems that interfere with theacquisition of a balanced diet. A decrease in taste and smell anddecreased gastrointestinal motility and absorption occur withaging. Cardiovascular status is not a factor that affects anelderly person's nutritional status.

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48. When the mid-upper arm circumference and tricepsskinfold of an 82-year-old man are evaluated, which isimportant for the nurse to remember?

A) These measurements are no longer necessary for the elderly.B) Derived weight measures may be difficult to interpretbecause of wide ranges of normal.C) These measurements may not be accurate because of changesin skin and fat distribution.D) Measurements may be difficult to obtain if the patient isunable to flex his elbow to at least 90 degrees.

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C) These measurements may not be accurate becauseof changes in skin and fat distribution.

Page: 191 Accurate mid-upper arm circumference and tricepsskinfold measurements are difficult to obtain andinterpret in older adults because of sagging skin,changes in fat distribution, and declining musclemass. Body mass index and waist-to-hip ratio arebetter indicators of obesity in the elderly.

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49. The nurse needs to perform anthropometric measures of an80-year-old man who is confined to a wheelchair. Which of thefollowing is true in this situation?

A) Changes in fat distribution will affect the waist-to-hip ratio.B) Height measurements may not be accurate because ofchanges in bone.C) Declining muscle mass will affect the triceps skinfoldmeasure.D) Mid-arm circumference is difficult to obtain because of lossof skin elasticity.

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B) Height measurements may not beaccurate because of changes in bone.

Page: 191. Height measures may not beaccurate in individuals confined to a bed orwheelchair or those over 60 years of agebecause of osteoporotic changes.

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50. The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment on an 80-year-old patient. The nurse knows that physiological changesthat directly affect the nutritional status of the elderly include:

A) slowed gastrointestinal motility.B) hyperstimulation of the salivary glands.C) an increased sensitivity to spicy and aromatic foods.D) decreased gastrointestinal absorption causing esophagealreflux.

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A) slowed gastrointestinal motility.

Page: 176. Normal physiological changes in agingadults that affect nutritional status includeslowed gastrointestinal motility, decreasedgastrointestinal absorption, diminished olfactoryand taste sensitivity, decreased saliva production,decreased visual acuity, and poor dentition.

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51. The nurse keeps in mind that a thoroughskin assessment is very important becausethe skin holds information about a person's:

A) support systems.B) circulatory status.C) socioeconomic status.D) psychological wellness.

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B) circulatory status.

Page: 211. The skin holds information aboutthe body's circulation, nutritional status,and signs of systemic diseases as well astopical data on the integument itself.

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52. A patient tells the nurse that he has noticed that one of hismoles has started to burn and bleed. When assessing his skin,the nurse would pay special attention to the danger signs forpigmented lesions and would be concerned with whichadditional finding?

A) Color variationB) Border regularityC) Symmetry of lesionsD) Diameter less than 6 mm

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A) Color variation

Pages: 212-213. Abnormal characteristics ofpigmented lesions are summarized in themnemonic ABCD: asymmetry of pigmentedlesion, border irregularity, color variation,and diameter greater than 6 mm.

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53. An elderly woman is brought to the emergencydepartment after being found lying on the kitchenfloor 2 days, and she is extremely dehydrated. Whatwould the nurse expect to see upon examination?

A) Smooth mucous membranes and lipsB) Dry mucous membranes and cracked lipsC) Pale mucous membranesD) White patches on the mucous membranes

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B) Dry mucous membranes and cracked lips

Page: 215. With dehydration, mucousmembranes look dry and lips look parchedand cracked. The other responses are notfound in dehydration.

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54. A 65-year-old man with emphysema andbronchitis has come to the clinic for a follow-upappointment. On assessment, the nurse mightexpect to see which assessment finding?

A) AnasarcaB) SclerodermaC) Pedal erythemaD) Clubbing of the nails

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D) Clubbing of the nails

Pages: 217-218. Clubbing of the nails occurswith congenital cyanotic heart disease,neoplastic, and pulmonary diseases. Theother responses are assessment findings notassociated with pulmonary diseases.

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55. The nurse has discovered decreased skinturgor in a patient and knows that this is anexpected finding in which of these conditions?

A) Severe obesityB) Childhood growth spurtsC) Severe dehydrationD) Connective tissue disorders such asscleroderma

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C) Severe dehydration

Page: 215. Decreased skin turgor isassociated with severe dehydration or

extreme weight loss.

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56. A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size,accompanied by color changes, itching, burning, and bleeding overthe past month. She has a dark complexion and has no familyhistory of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns inthe past. The nurse would:

A) tell the patient to watch the lesion and report back in 2 months.B) refer the patient because of the suspicion of melanoma on thebasis of her symptoms.C) ask additional questions regarding environmental irritants thatmay have caused this condition.D) suspect that this is a compound nevus, which is very common inyoung to middle-aged adults.

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B) refer the patient because of the suspicion ofmelanoma on the basis of her symptoms.

The ABCD danger signs of melanoma are asymmetry,border irregularity, color variation, and diameter. Inaddition, individuals may report a change in size,development of itching, burning, bleeding, or a new-pigmented lesion. Any of these signs raise suspicionof malignant melanoma and warrant immediatereferral.

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57. The nurse is assessing for clubbing of thefingernails and would expect to find:

A) a nail base that is firm and slightly tender.B) curved nails with a convex profile and ridgesacross the nail.C) a nail base that feels spongy with an angle of thenail base of 150 degrees.D) an angle of the nail base of 180 degrees or greaterwith a nail base that feels spongy.

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D) an angle of the nail base of 180 degreesor greater with a nail base that feels spongy.

Pages: 217-218. The normal nail is firm atit* base and has an angle of 160 degrees. Inclubbing, the angle straightens to 180degrees or greater and the nail base feelsspongy.

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58. A patient has been admitted for severepsoriasis. The nurse can expect to see whatfinding in the patient's fingernails?

A) Splinter hemorrhagesB) ParonychiaC) PittingD) Beau lines

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C) Pitting

Pages: 248-250. Pitting nails arecharacterized by sharply defined pitting andcrumbling of the nails with distaldetachment, and they are associated withpsoriasis. See Table 12-13 for descriptions ofthe other terms.

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59. The nurse suspects that a patient hashyperthyroidism and laboratory data indicate thatthe patient's thyroxine and tri-iodothyroninehormone levels are elevated. Which of these findingswould the nurse most likely find on examination?

A) TachycardiaB) ConstipationC) Rapid dyspneaD) Atrophied nodular thyroid

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A) Tachycardia

Thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine are thyroidhormones that stimulate the rate of cellularmetabolism, resulting in tachycardia. With anenlarged thyroid as in hyperthyroidism, the nursemight expect to find diffuse enlargement (goiter) or anodular lump, but not an atrophied gland. Dyspneaand constipation are not findings associated withhyperthyroidism.

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60. During an examination, the nurse knowsthat Paget's disease would be indicated bywhich of these assessment findings?

A) Positive Macewen signB) Premature closure of the sagittal sutureC) Headache, vertigo, tinnitus, and deafnessD) Elongated head with heavy eyebrow ridge

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C) Headache, vertigo, tinnitus, and deafness

Paget's disease occurs more often in malesand is characterized by bowed long bones,sudden fractures, and enlarging skull bonesthat press on cranial nerves causingsymptoms of headache, vertigo, tinnitus, andprogressive deafness.

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61. A woman comes to the clinic and states, "I've been sickfor so long! My eyes have gotten so puffy, and my eyebrowsand hair have become coarse and dry." The nurse will assessfor other signs and symptoms of:

A) cachexia.B) Parkinson's syndrome.C) myxedema.D) scleroderma.

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C) myxedema.

Pages: 276-277. Myxedema (hypothyroidism) is adeficiency of thyroid hormone that, when severe,causes a nonpitting edema or myxedema. The patientwill have a puffy edematous face especially aroundeyes (periorbital edema), coarse facial features, dryskin, and dry, coarse hair and eyebrows. See Table 13-4, Abnormal Facial Appearances with ChronicIllnesses, for descriptions of the other responses.

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62. The physician reports that a patient with aneck tumor has a tracheal shift. The nurse isaware that this means that the patient's tracheais:

A) pulled to the affected side.B) pushed to the unaffected side.C) pulled downward.D) pulled downward in a rhythmic pattern.

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B) pushed to the unaffected side.

Pages: 262-263. The trachea is pushed to theunaffected side with an aortic aneurysm, a tumor,unilateral thyroid lobe enlargement, andpneumothorax. The trachea is pulled to the affectedside with large atelectasis, pleural adhesions, orfibrosis. Tracheal tug is a rhythmic downward pullthat is synchronous with systole and occurs withaortic arch aneurysm.

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63. During an assessment of an infant, the nursenotes that the fontanels are depressed andsunken. The nurse suspects which condition?

A) RicketsB) DehydrationC) Mental retardationD) Increased intracranial pressure

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B) Dehydration

Pages: 265-266. Depressed and sunkenfontanels occur with dehydration ormalnutrition. Mental retardation and ricketshave no effect on fontanels. Increasedintracranial pressure would cause tense orbulging, and possibly pulsating fontanels.

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64. The nurse is performing an assessment on a 7-year-old childwho has symptoms of chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clearnasal drainage. The nurse notices the presence of a transverseline across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows below theeyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids. These findingsare characteristic of:

A) allergies.B) a sinus infection.C) nasal congestion.D) an upper respiratory infection.

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A) allergies.

Page: 275. Chronic allergies often developchronic facial characteristics. These includeblue shadows below the eyes, a double orsingle crease on the lower eyelids, open-mouth breathing, and a transverse line onthe nose.

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65. A mother asks when her newborn infant's eyesight will bedeveloped. The nurse should reply:

A) "Vision is not totally developed until 2 years of age."B) "Infants develop the ability to focus on an object at around 8months."C) "By about 3 months, infants develop more coordinated eyemovements and can fixate on an object."D) "Most infants have uncoordinated eye movements for thefirst year of life."

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C) "By about 3 months, infants develop morecoordinated eye movements and can fixate on anobject."

Page: 284. Eye movements may be poorlycoordinated at birth, but by 3 to 4 months of age,the infant should establish binocularity andshould be able to fixate on a single image withboth eyes simultaneously.

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66. The nurse is performing an eye assessment on an80-year-old patient. Which of these findings isconsidered abnormal?

A) A decrease in tear productionB) Unequal pupillary constriction in response to lightC) The presence of arcus senilis seen around thecorneaD) Loss of the outer hair on the eyebrows due to adecrease in hair follicles

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B) Unequal pupillary constriction in response tolight

Pages: 305-308. Pupils are small in old age, andthe pupillary light reflex may be slowed, butpupillary constriction should be symmetric. Theassessment findings in the other responses areconsidered normal in older persons.

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67. The nurse notices the presence of periorbitaledema when performing an eye assessment on a 70-year-old patient. The nurse should:

A) check for the presence of exophthalmos.B) suspect that the patient has hyperthyroidism.C) ask the patient if he or she has a history of heartfailure.D) assess for blepharitis because this is oftenassociated with periorbital edema.

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C) ask the patient if he or she has a history ofheart failure.

Page: 312. Periorbital edema occurs with localinfections, crying, and systemic conditions suchas heart failure, renal failure, allergy, andhypothyroidism. Periorbital edema is notassociated with blepharitis.

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68. A patient comes to the emergency department after aboxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He hasbruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinaldamage. The nurse recognizes that signs of retinal detachmentinclude:

A) loss of central vision.B) shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half ofthe visual field.C) loss of peripheral vision.D) sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation.

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B) shadow or diminished vision in onequadrant or one half of the visual field.

Page: 316. With retinal detachment, theperson has shadows or diminished vision inone quadrant or one half of the visual field.The other responses are not signs of retinaldetachment.

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69. A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. Shetells the nurse that she has been having trouble with readingthe paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of hergrandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she hassome loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal.These findings suggest that:

A) she may have macular degeneration.B) her vision is normal for someone her age.C) she has the beginning stages of cataract formation.D) she has increased intraocular pressure or glaucoma.

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A) she may have macular degeneration.

Page: 285. Macular degeneration is the mostcommon cause of blindness. It is characterizedby loss of central vision. Cataracts would showlens opacity. Chronic open-angle glaucoma, themost common type of glaucoma, involves agradual loss of peripheral vision.

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70. An ophthalmic examination revealspapilledema. The nurse is aware that thisfinding indicates:

A) retinal detachment.B) diabetic retinopathy.C) acute-angle glaucoma.D) increased intracranial pressure.

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D) increased intracranial pressure.

Pages: 319-320. Papilledema, or choked disk, is a serious signof increased intracranial pressure, which is caused by a space-occupying mass such as a brain tumor or hematoma. Thispressure causes venous stasis in the globe, showing redness,congestion, and elevation of the optic disc, blurred margins,hemorrhages, and absent venous pulsations. Papilledema is notassociated with the conditions in the other responses.

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71. During an examination, a patient states that she was diagnosedwith open-angle glaucoma 2 years ago. The nurse assesses forcharacteristics of open-angle glaucoma. Which of these arecharacteristics of open-angle glaucoma? Select all that apply.

A) The patient may experience sensitivity to light, nausea, and halosaround lights.B) The patient experiences tunnel vision in late stages.C) Immediate treatment is needed.D) Vision loss begins with peripheral vision.E) It causes sudden attacks of increased pressure that cause blurredvision.F) There are virtually no symptoms.

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B) The patient experiences tunnel vision in late stages.D) Vision loss begins with peripheral vision.F) There are virtually no symptoms.

Pages: 308-309. Open-angle glaucoma is the most commontype of glaucoma; there are virtually no symptoms. Vision lossbegins with the peripheral vision, which often goes unnoticedbecause individuals learn to compensate intuitively by turningtheir heads. The other characteristics are those of closed-angleglaucoma.

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72. The nurse is taking the history of a patient who may have aperforated eardrum. What would be an important question inthis situation?

A) "Do you ever notice ringing or crackling in your ears?"B) "When was the last time you had your hearing checked?"C) "Have you ever been told you have any type of hearing loss?"D) "Was there any relationship between the ear pain and thedischarge you mentioned?"

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D) "Was there any relationship between theear pain and the discharge you mentioned?"

Pages: 327-328. Typically with perforation,ear pain occurs first, stopping with apopping sensation, and then drainageoccurs.

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73. The nurse is performing an ear examinationof an 80-year-old patient. Which of these wouldbe considered a normal finding?

A) A high-tone frequency lossB) Increased elasticity of the pinnaC) A thin, translucent membraneD) A shiny, pink tympanic membrane

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A) A high-tone frequency loss

Pages: 337-338. A high-tone frequency hearingloss is apparent for those affected withpresbycusis, the hearing loss that occurs withaging. The pinna loses elasticity, causingearlobes to be pendulous. The eardrum may bewhiter in color and more opaque and duller thanin the young adult.

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74. During an examination, the patient states heis hearing a buzzing sound and says that it is"driving me crazy!" The nurse recognizes thatthis symptom indicates:

A) vertigo.B) pruritus.C) tinnitus.D) cholesteatoma.

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C) tinnitus.

Pages: 328-329. Tinnitus is a sound thatcomes from within a person; it can be aringing, crackling, or buzzing sound. Itaccompanies some hearing or ear disorders.

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75. The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man andkeeps in mind the changes in hearing that occur with aginginclude which of the following? Select all that apply.

A) Hearing loss related to aging begins in the mid 40s.B) The progression is slow.C) The aging person has low-frequency tone loss.D) The aging person may find it harder to hear consonants thanvowels.E) Sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize.F) Hearing loss reflects nerve degeneration of the middle ear.

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B) The progression is slow.D) The aging person may find it harder to hear consonants thanvowels.E) Sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize.

Page: 326. Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs withaging and is found in 60% of those older than 65 years. It is agradual sensorineural loss caused by nerve degeneration in the innerear or auditory nerve, and it slowly progresses after age 50. Theperson first notices a high-frequency tone loss; it is harder to hearconsonants (high-pitched components of speech) than vowels. Thismakes words sound garbled. The ability to localize sound is impairedalso.

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76. When assessing a patient's lungs, the nurserecalls that the left lung:

A) consists of two lobes.B) is divided by the horizontal fissure.C) consists primarily of an upper lobe on theposterior chest.D) is shorter than the right lung because of theunderlying stomach.

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A) consists of two lobes.

Pages: 413-414. The left lung has two lobes, andthe right lung has three lobes. The right lung isshorter than the left lung because of theunderlying liver. The left lung is narrower thanthe right lung because the heart bulges to the left.The posterior chest is almost all lower lobe.

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77. During an assessment, the nurse knows that expectedassessment findings in the normal adult lung include thepresence of:

A) adventitious sounds and limited chest expansion.B) increased tactile fremitus and dull percussion tones.C) muffled voice sounds and symmetrical tactile fremitus.D) absent voice sounds and hyperresonant percussion tones.

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C) muffled voice sounds and symmetrical tactilefremitus.

Pages: 429-430. Normal lung findings includesymmetric chest expansion, resonant percussiontones, vesicular breath sounds over theperipheral lung fields, muffled voice sounds, andno adventitious sounds.

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78. A 65-year-old patient with a history of heart failure comes to theclinic with complaints of "being awakened from sleep with shortnessof breath." Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Obtain a detailed history of the patient's allergies and history ofasthma.B) Tell the patient to sleep on his or her right side to facilitate ease ofrespirations.C) Assess for other signs and symptoms of paroxysmal nocturnaldyspnea.D) Assure the patient that this is normal and will probably resolvewithin the next week.

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C) Assess for other signs and symptoms ofparoxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

Pages: 419-420. The patient is experiencingparoxysmal nocturnal dyspnea: beingawakened from sleep with shortness ofbreath and the need to be upright to achievecomfort.

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79. When assessing tactile fremitus, thenurse recalls that it is normal to feel tactilefremitus most intensely over which location?

A) Between the scapulaeB) Third intercostal space, MCLC) Fifth intercostal space, MALD) Over the lower lobes, posterior side

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A) Between the scapulae

Page: 424. Normally, fremitus is most prominentbetween the scapulae and around the sternum.These are sites where the major bronchi areclosest to the chest wall. Fremitus normallydecreases as one progress down the chestbecause more tissue impedes soundtransmission.

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80. The nurse is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactilefremitus with a new graduate. Which statement by the graduatenurse reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus?"Tactile fremitus:

A) is caused by moisture in the alveoli."B) indicates that there is air in the subcutaneous tissues."C) is caused by sounds generated from the larynx."D) reflects the blood flow through the pulmonary arteries."

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C) is caused by sounds generated from thelarynx."

Pages: 422-423. Fremitus is a palpablevibration. Sounds generated from the larynx aretransmitted through patent bronchi and the lungparenchyma to the chest wall where they are feltas vibrations. Crepitus is the term for air in thesubcutaneous tissues.

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81. When auscultating the lungs of an adult patient, the nursenotes that over the posterior lower lobes low-pitched, softbreath sounds are heard, with inspiration being longer thanexpiration. The nurse interprets that these are:

A) sounds normally auscultated over the trachea.B) bronchial breath sounds and are normal in that location.C) vesicular breath sounds and are normal in that location.D) bronchovesicular breath sounds and are normal in thatlocation.

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C) vesicular breath sounds and are normal inthat location.

Pages: 428-429. Vesicular breath sounds arelow-pitched, soft sounds with inspiration beinglonger than expiration. These breath sounds areexpected over peripheral lung fields where airflows through smaller bronchioles and alveoli.

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82. The nurse is percussing over the lungs of apatient with pneumonia. The nurse knows thatpercussion over an area of atelectasis in the lungswould reveal:

A) dullness.B) tympany.C) resonance.D) hyperresonance.

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A) dullness.

Pages: 424-425. A dull percussion notesignals an abnormal density in the lungs, aswith pneumonia, pleural effusion,atelectasis, or tumor.

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83. The nurse knows that auscultation offine crackles would most likely be noticed in:

A) a healthy 5-year-old child.B) a pregnant woman.C) the immediate newborn period.D) association with a pneumothorax.

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C) the immediate newborn period.

Pages: 436-437. Fine crackles are commonlyheard in the immediate newborn period as aresult of the opening of the airways and clearingof fluid. Persistent fine crackles would be noticedwith pneumonia, bronchiolitis, or atelectasis.

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84. During auscultation of the lungs of an adultpatient, the nurse notices the presence ofbronchophony. The nurse should assess for signsof which condition?

A) Airway obstructionB) EmphysemaC) Pulmonary consolidationD) Asthma

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C) Pulmonary consolidation

Page: 446. Pathologic conditions thatincrease lung density, such as pulmonaryconsolidation, will enhance transmission ofvoice sounds, such as bronchophony. SeeTable 18-7.

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85. The nurse is listening to the breath sounds ofa patient with severe asthma. Air passing throughnarrowed bronchioles would produce which ofthese adventitious sounds?

A) WheezesB) Bronchial soundsC) BronchophonyD) Whispered pectoriloquy

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A) Wheezes

Page: 445. Wheezes are caused by airsqueezed or compressed throughpassageways narrowed almost to closure bycollapsing, swelling, secretions, or tumors,such as with acute asthma or chronicemphysema.

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86. An adult patient with a history of allergies comes to theclinic complaining of wheezing and difficulty in breathing whenworking in his yard. The assessment findings include tachypnea,use of accessory neck muscles, prolonged expiration, intercostalretractions, decreased breath sounds, and expiratory wheezes.The nurse interprets that these assessment findings areconsistent with:

A) asthma.B) atelectasis.C) lobar pneumonia.D) heart failure.

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A) asthma.

Page: 451. Asthma is allergic hypersensitivity to certain inhaledparticles that produces inflammation and a reaction ofbronchospasm, which increases airway resistance, especiallyduring expiration. Increased respiratory rate, use of accessorymuscles, retraction of intercostal muscles, prolongedexpiration, decreased breath sounds, and expiratory wheezingare all characteristic of asthma. See Table 18-8 for descriptionsof the other conditions.

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87. During auscultation of breath sounds, the nurse should usethe stethoscope correctly, in which of the following ways?

A) Listen to at least one full respiration in each location.B) Listen as the patient inhales and then go to the next siteduring exhalation.C) Have the patient breathe in and out rapidly while the nurselistens to the breath sounds.D) If the patient is modest, listen to sounds over his or herclothing or hospital gown.

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A) Listen to at least one full respiration in eachlocation.

Pages: 426-427. During auscultation of breathsounds with a stethoscope, it is important to listen toone full respiration in each location. During theexamination, the nurse should monitor the breathingand offer times for the person to breathe normally toprevent possible dizziness.

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88. During palpation of the anterior chest wall,the nurse notices a coarse, crackling sensationover the skin surface. On the basis of thesefindings, the nurse suspects:

A) tactile fremitus.B) crepitus.C) friction rub.D) adventitious sounds.

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B) crepitus.

Page: 424. Crepitus is a coarse, cracklingsensation palpable over the skin surface. Itoccurs in subcutaneous emphysema whenair escapes from the lung and enters thesubcutaneous tissue, as after open thoracicinjury or surgery.

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89. The nurse is auscultating the lungs of a patient who hadbeen sleeping and notices short, popping, crackling sounds thatstop after a few breaths. The nurse recognizes that these breathsounds are:

A) atelectatic crackles, and that they are not pathologic.B) fine crackles, and that they may be a sign of pneumonia.C) vesicular breath sounds.D) fine wheezes.

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A) atelectatic crackles, and that they are not pathologic.

Pages: 429-430. One type of adventitious sound, atelectaticcrackles, is not pathologic. They are short, popping, cracklingsounds that sound like fine crackles but do not last beyond afew breaths. When sections of alveoli are not fully aerated (asin people who are asleep or in the elderly), they deflate slightlyand accumulate secretions. Crackles are heard when thesesections are expanded by a few deep breaths. Atelectaticcrackles are heard only in the periphery, usually in dependentportions of the lungs, and disappear after the first few breathsor after a cough.

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90. The nurse is assessing voice sounds during a respiratory assessment.Which of these findings indicates a normal assessment? Select all that apply.

A) Voice sounds are faint, muffled, and almost inaudible when the patientwhispers "one, two, three" in a very soft voice.B) As the patient says "ninety-nine" repeatedly, the examiner hears the words"ninety-nine" clearly.C) When the patient speaks in a normal voice, the examiner can hear a soundbut cannot distinguish exactly what is being said.D) As the patient says a long "ee-ee-ee" sound, the examiner also hears a long"ee-ee-ee" sound.E) As the patient says a long "ee-ee-ee" sound, the examiner hears a long"aaaaaa" sound.

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A) Voice sounds are faint, muffled, and almost inaudible when the patient whispers "one, two, three" in a very softvoice.C) When the patient speaks in a normal voice, the examiner can hear a sound but cannot distinguish exactly what isbeing said.D) As the patient says a long "ee-ee-ee" sound, the examiner also hears a long "ee-ee-ee" sound.

Page: 446. As a patient says "ninety-nine" repeatedly, normally, the examiner hears sound but cannot distinguishwhat is being said. If a clear "ninety-nine" is auscultated, then it could indicate increased lung density, whichenhances transmission of voice sounds. This is a measure of bronchophony. When a patient says a long "ee-ee-ee"sound, normally the examiner also hears a long "ee-ee-ee" sound through auscultation. This is a measure ofegophony. If the examiner hears a long "aaaaaa" sound instead, this could indicate areas of consolidation orcompression. With whispered pectoriloquy, as when a patient whispers a phrase such as "one-two-three," thenormal response when auscultating voice sounds is to hear sounds that are faint, muffled, and almost inaudible. Ifthe examiners hears the whispered voice clearly, as if the patient is speaking through the stethoscope, thenconsolidation of the lung fields may exist.

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91. During an assessment of a 68-year-old man with arecent onset of right-sided weakness, the nurse hearsa blowing, swishing sound with the bell of thestethoscope over the left carotid artery. This findingwould indicate:

A) a valvular disorder.B) blood flow turbulence.C) fluid volume overload.D) ventricular hypertrophy.

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B) blood flow turbulence.

Page: 471. A bruit is a blowing, swishingsound indicating blood flow turbulence;normally none is present.

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92. During an assessment of a healthy adult, wherewould the nurse expect to palpate the apical impulse?

A) Third left intercostal space at the midclavicularlineB) Fourth left intercostal space at the sternal borderC) Fourth left intercostal space at the anterioraxillary lineD) Fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicularline

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D) Fifth left intercostal space at themidclavicular line

Pages: 473-474. The apical impulse shouldoccupy only one intercostal space, the fourthor fifth, and it should be at or medial to themidclavicular line.

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93. The nurse is preparing to auscultate for heart sounds.Which technique is correct?

A) Listen to the sounds at the aortic, tricuspid, pulmonic, andmitral areas.B) Listen by inching the stethoscope in a rough Z pattern, fromthe base of the heart across and down, then over to the apex.C) Listen to the sounds only at the site where the apical pulse isfelt to be the strongest.D) Listen for all possible sounds at a time at each specifiedarea.

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B) Listen by inching the stethoscope in a rough Z pattern, fromthe base of the heart across and down, then over to the apex.

Pages: 475-476. Do not limit auscultation of breath sounds toonly four locations. Sounds produced by the valves may beheard all over the precordium. Inch the stethoscope in a roughZ pattern from the base of the heart across and down, then overto the apex. Or, start at the apex and work your way up. SeeFigure 19-22. Listen selectively to one sound at a time.

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94. The nurse is assessing a patient's apical impulse.Which of these statements is true regarding theapical impulse?

A) It is palpable in all adults.B) It occurs with the onset of diastole.C) Its location may be indicative of heart size.D) It should normally be palpable in the anterioraxillary line.

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C) Its location may be indicative of heart size.

Page: 473 | Page: 492. The apical impulse ispalpable in about 50% of adults. It is located inthe fifth left intercostal space in themidclavicular line. Horizontal or downwarddisplacement of the apical impulse may indicatean enlargement of the left ventricle.

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95. During an assessment of an older adult, the nurse shouldexpect to notice which finding as a normal physiologic changeassociated with the aging process?

A) Hormonal changes causing vasodilation and a resulting dropin blood pressureB) Progressive atrophy of the intramuscular calf veins, causingvenous insufficiencyC) Peripheral blood vessels growing more rigid with age,producing a rise in systolic blood pressureD) Narrowing of the inferior vena cava, causing low blood flowand increases in venous pressure resulting in varicosities

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C) Peripheral blood vessels growing more rigidwith age, producing a rise in systolic bloodpressure

Pages: 504-505. Peripheral blood vessels growmore rigid with age, resulting in a rise in systolicblood pressure. Aging produces progressiveenlargement of the intramuscular calf veins, notatrophy. The other options are not correct.

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96. During an assessment, the nurse usesthe "profile sign" to detect:

A) pitting edema.B) early clubbing.C) symmetry of the fingers.D) insufficient capillary refill.

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B) early clubbing.

Page: 506. The nurse should use the profilesign (viewing the finger from the side) todetect early clubbing.

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97. When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on apatient, the nurse is unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. Thepatient's skin is warm and capillary refill time is normal. Thenurse should next:

A) check for the presence of claudication.B) refer the individual for further evaluation.C) consider this a normal finding and proceed with theperipheral vascular evaluation.D) ask the patient if he or she has experienced any unusualcramping or tingling in the arm.

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C) consider this a normal finding andproceed with the peripheral vascularevaluation.

Pages: 506-507. It is not usually necessaryto palpate the ulnar pulses. The ulnar pulsesare often not palpable in the normal person.The other responses are not correct.

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98. The nurse is attempting to assess the femoral pulse in anobese patient. Which of these actions would be mostappropriate?

A) Have the patient assume a prone position.B) Ask the patient to bend his or her knees to the side in afroglike position.C) Press firmly against the bone with the patient in a semi-Fowler position.D) Listen with a stethoscope for pulsations because it is verydifficult to palpate the pulse in an obese person.

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B) Regular "lub, dub" pattern

Pages: 510-511. To help expose the femoralarea, particularly in obese people, the nurseshould ask the person to bend his or herknees to the side in a froglike position.

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99. When using a Doppler ultrasonicstethoscope, the nurse recognizes arterial flowwhen which sound is heard?

A) Low humming soundB) Regular "lub, dub" patternC) Swishing, whooshing soundD) Steady, even, flowing sound

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C) Swishing, whooshing sound

Pages: 515-516. When using the Dopplerultrasonic stethoscope, the pulse site isfound when one hears a swishing,whooshing sound.

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100. The nurse is reviewing an assessment of apatient's peripheral pulses and notices that thedocumentation states that the radial pulses are "2+."The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates whattype of pulse?

A) BoundingB) NormalC) WeakD) Absent

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B) Normal

Pages: 506-507. When documenting theforce, or amplitude, of pulses, 3+ indicatesan increased, full, or bounding pulse, 2+indicates a normal pulse, 1+ indicates aweak pulse, and 0 indicates an absent pulse.

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101. The nurse is percussing the seventh rightintercostal space at the midclavicular line overthe liver. Which sound should the nurse expect tohear?

A) DullnessB) TympanyC) ResonanceD) Hyperresonance

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A) Dullness

Page: 541. The liver is located in the rightupper quadrant and would elicit a dull

percussion note.

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102. Which structure is located in the leftlower quadrant of the abdomen?

A) LiverB) DuodenumC) GallbladderD) Sigmoid colon

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D) Sigmoid colon

Page: 530. The sigmoid colon is located inthe left lower quadrant of the abdomen.

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103. The nurse suspects that a patient has adistended bladder. How should the nurse assessfor this condition?

A) Percuss and palpate in the lumbar region.B) Inspect and palpate in the epigastric region.C) Auscultate and percuss in the inguinal region.D) Percuss and palpate the midline area abovethe suprapubic bone.

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D) Percuss and palpate the midline areaabove the suprapubic bone.

Pages: 539-540. Dull percussion soundswould be elicited over a distended bladder,and the hypogastric area would seem firm topalpation.

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104. While examining a patient, the nurse observesabdominal pulsations between the xiphoid andumbilicus. The nurse would suspect that these are:

A) pulsations of the renal arteries.B) pulsations of the inferior vena cava.C) normal abdominal aortic pulsations.D) increased peristalsis from a bowel obstruction.

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C) normal abdominal aortic pulsations.

Pages: 538-539. Normally, one may see thepulsations from the aorta beneath the skinin the epigastric area, particularly in thinpersons with good muscle wall relaxation.

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105. A patient has hypoactive bowel sounds.The nurse knows that a potential cause ofhypoactive bowel sounds is:

A) diarrhea.B) peritonitis.C) laxative use.D) gastroenteritis.

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B) peritonitis.

Page: 561. Diminished or absent bowelsounds signal decreased motility frominflammation as seen with peritonitis, withparalytic ileus after abdominal surgery, orwith late bowel obstruction.

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106. The physician comments that a patient hasabdominal borborygmi. The nurse knows thatthis term refers to:

A) a loud continuous hum.B) a peritoneal friction rub.C) hypoactive bowel sounds.D) hyperactive bowel sounds.

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D) hyperactive bowel sounds.

Pages: 539-540. Borborygmi is the termused for hyperperistalsis when the personactually feels his or her stomach growling.

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107. During an abdominal assessment, the nursewould consider which of these findings as normal?

A) The presence of a bruit in the femoral areaB) A tympanic percussion note in the umbilicalregionC) A palpable spleen between the ninth and eleventhribs in the left midaxillary lineD) A dull percussion note in the left upper quadrantat the midclavicular line

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B) A tympanic percussion note in the umbilicalregion

Pages: 539-540. Tympany should predominate in allfour quadrants of the abdomen because air in theintestines rises to the surface when the person issupine. Vascular bruits are not usually present.Normally the spleen is not palpable. Dullness wouldnot be found in the area of lung resonance (left upperquadrant at the midclavicular line).

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108. During an abdominal assessment, the nurseis unable to hear bowel sounds in a patient'sabdomen. Before reporting this finding as "silentbowel sounds" the nurse should listen for at least:

A) 1 minute.B) 5 minutes.C) 10 minutes.D) 2 minutes in each quadrant.

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B) 5 minutes.

Pages: 539-540. Absent bowel sounds arerare. The nurse must listen for 5 minutesbefore deciding bowel sounds are completelyabsent.

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109. A patient is suspected of havinginflammation of the gallbladder, or cholecystitis.The nurse should conduct which of thesetechniques to assess for this condition?

A) Obturator testB) Test for Murphy's signC) Assess for rebound tendernessD) Iliopsoas muscle test

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B) Test for Murphy's sign

Page: 551. Normally, palpating the liver causesno pain. In a person with inflammation of thegallbladder, or cholecystitis, pain occurs as thedescending liver pushes the inflamed gallbladderonto the examining hand during inspiration(Murphy's test). The person feels sharp pain andabruptly stops inspiration midway.

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110. During an assessment the nurse notices that apatient's umbilicus is enlarged and everted. It ismidline, and there is no change in skin color. Thenurse recognizes that the patient may have whichcondition?

A) Intra-abdominal bleedingB) ConstipationC) Umbilical herniaD) An abdominal tumor

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C) Umbilical hernia

Page: 537. The umbilicus is normallymidline and inverted, with no signs ofdiscoloration. With an umbilical hernia, themass is enlarged and everted. The otherresponses are incorrect.

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111. The nurse suspects that a patient hasappendicitis. Which of these procedures areappropriate for use when assessing for appendicitisor a perforated appendix? Select all that apply.

A) Test for Murphy's sign.B) Test for Blumberg's sign.C) Test for shifting dullness.D) Perform iliopsoas muscle test.E) Test for fluid wave.

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B) Test for Blumberg's sign.D) Perform iliopsoas muscle test.

Pages: 543-544 | Page: 551. Testing for Blumberg'ssign (rebound tenderness) and performing theiliopsoas muscle test should be used to assess forappendicitis. Murphy's sign is used to assess for aninflamed gallbladder or cholecystitis. Testing for afluid wave and shifting dullness is done to assess forascites.

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112. When assessing muscle strength, the nurseobserves that a patient has complete range of motionagainst gravity with full resistance. What Gradeshould the nurse record using a 0 to 5 point scale?

A) 2B) 3C) 4D) 5

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D) 5

Pages: 578-579. Complete range of motionagainst gravity is normal muscle strengthand is recorded as Grade 5 muscle strength.

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113. The nurse is assessing the joints of a woman who hasstated, "I have a long family history of arthritis, and my jointshurt." The nurse suspects that she has osteoarthritis. Which ofthese are symptoms of osteoarthritis? Select all that apply.

A) Symmetric joint involvementB) Asymmetric joint involvementC) Pain with motion of affected jointsD) Affected joints are swollen with hard, bony protuberancesE) Affected joints may have heat, redness, and swelling

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B) Asymmetric joint involvementC) Pain with motion of affected jointsD) Affected joints are swollen with hard, bony protuberances

Page: 608. In osteoarthritis, asymmetric joint involvementcommonly affects hands, knees, hips, and lumbar and cervicalsegments of the spine. Affected joints have stiffness, swellingwith hard bony protuberances, pain with motion, and limitationof motion. The other options reflect signs of rheumatoidarthritis.

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114. During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nursenotices the following: inability to identify vibrations at theankle and to identify position of big toe, slower and moredeliberate gait, and slightly impaired tactile sensation. Allother neurologic findings are normal. The nurse shouldinterpret that these findings indicate:

A) cranial nerve dysfunction.B) lesion in the cerebral cortex.C) normal changes due to aging.D) demyelinization of nerves due to a lesion.

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C) normal changes due to aging.

Page: 629. Some aging adults show a slowerresponse to requests, especially for thosecalling for coordination of movements. Thefindings listed are normal in the absence ofother significant abnormal findings. Theother responses are incorrect.

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115. In obtaining a history on a 74-year-old patient the nursenotes that he drinks alcohol daily and that he has noticed atremor in his hands that affects his ability to hold things. Withthis information, what should the nurse's response be?

A) "Does your family know you are drinking every day?"B) "Does the tremor change when you drink the alcohol?"C) "We'll do some tests to see what is causing the tremor."D) "You really shouldn't drink so much alcohol; it may becausing your tremor."

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B) "Does the tremor change when you drinkthe alcohol?"

Page: 632. Intention tremor/ senile tremoris relieved by alcohol, although this is not arecommended treatment. The nurse shouldassess whether the person is abusing alcoholin an effort to relieve the tremor.

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116. During the neurologic assessment of a "healthy" 35-year-old patient, the nurse asks him to relax his muscles completely.The nurse then moves each extremity through full range ofmotion. Which of these results would the nurse expect to find?

A) Firm, rigid resistance to movementB) Mild, even resistance to movementC) Hypotonic muscles as a result of total relaxationD) Slight pain with some directions of movement

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B) Mild, even resistance to movement

Page: 637. Tone is the normal degree oftension (contraction) in voluntarily relaxedmuscles. It shows a mild resistance topassive stretch. Normally, the nurse willnotice a mild, even resistance to movement.The other responses are not correct.

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117. When the nurse asks a 68-year-old patient tostand with feet together and arms at his side with hiseyes closed, he starts to sway and moves his feetfarther apart. The nurse would document this findingas a(n):

A) ataxia.B) lack of coordination.C) negative Homans' sign.D) positive Romberg sign.

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D) positive Romberg sign.

Page: 638. Abnormal findings for Romberg testinclude swaying, falling, and widening base offeet to avoid falling. Positive Romberg sign is lossof balance that is increased by closing of the eyes.Ataxia is uncoordinated or unsteady gait.Homans' sign is used to test the legs for deep veinthrombosis.

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118. During the history of a 78-year-old man, his wife states that heoccasionally has problems with short-term memory loss and confusion: "Hecan't even remember how to button his shirt." In doing the assessment of hissensory system, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) The nurse would not do this part of the examination because results wouldnot be valid.B) The nurse would perform the tests, knowing that mental status does notaffect sensory ability.C) The nurse would proceed with the explanations of each test, making sure thewife understands.D) Before testing, the nurse would assess the patient's mental status and abilityto follow directions at this time.

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D) Before testing, the nurse would assess thepatient's mental status and ability to followdirections at this time.

The nurse should ensure validity of the sensorysystem testing by making sure the patient is alert,cooperative, comfortable, and has an adequateattention span. Otherwise, the nurse may obtainmisleading and invalid results.

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119. In assessing a 70-year-old patient who has had arecent cerebrovascular accident, the nurse noticesright-sided weakness. What might the nurse expectto find when testing his reflexes on the right side?

A) Lack of reflexesB) Normal reflexesC) Diminished reflexesD) Hyperactive reflexes

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D) Hyperactive reflexes

Hyperreflexia is the exaggerated reflex seenwhen the monosynaptic reflex arc is releasedfrom the influence of higher cortical levels.This occurs with upper motor neuron lesions(e.g., a cerebrovascular accident). The otherresponses are incorrect

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120. During the assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nursenotices that his hands show tremors when he reaches forsomething and his head is always nodding. There is noassociated rigidity with movement. Which of these statementsis most accurate?

A) These are normal findings resulting from aging.B) These could be related to hyperthyroidism.C) These are the result of Parkinson disease.D) This patient should be evaluated for a cerebellar lesion.

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A) These are normal findings resulting from aging.

Page: 659. Senile tremors occasionally occur. Thesebenign tremors include an intention tremor of thehands, head nodding (as if saying yes or no), andtongue protrusion. Tremors associated withParkinson disease include rigidity, slowness, andweakness of voluntary movement. The otherresponses are incorrect.

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121. While the nurse is taking the history of a 68-year-old patient who sustained a head injury 3 daysearlier, he tells the nurse that he is on a cruise shipand is 30 years old. The nurse knows that this findingis indicative of:

A) a great sense of humor.B) uncooperative behavior.C) inability to understand questions.D) decreased level of consciousness.

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D) decreased level of consciousness.

Pages: 660-661. A change in consciousness maybe subtle. The nurse should notice anydecreasing level of consciousness, disorientation,memory loss, uncooperative behavior, or evencomplacency in a previously combative person.The other responses are incorrect.

121b

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122. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just hadneurosurgery. To assess for increased intracranial pressure,what would the nurse include in the assessment?

A) Cranial nerves, motor function, and sensory functionB) Deep tendon reflexes, vital signs, and coordinatedmovementsC) Level of consciousness, motor function, pupillary response,and vital signsD) Mental status, deep tendon reflexes, sensory function, andpupillary response

122a

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C) Level of consciousness, motor function, pupillary response,and vital signs

Pages: 660-661. Some hospitalized persons have head traumaor a neurologic deficit from a systemic disease process. Thesepeople must be monitored closely for any improvement ordeterioration in neurologic status and for any indication ofincreasing intracranial pressure. The nurse should use anabbreviation of the neurologic examination in the followingsequence: level of consciousness, motor function, pupillaryresponse, and vital signs.

122b

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123. During an assessment of a 22-year-old woman who has ahead injury from a car accident 4 hours ago, the nurse noticesthe following change: pupils were equal, but now the right pupilis fully dilated and nonreactive, left pupil is 4 mm and reacts tolight. What does finding this suggest?

A) Injury to the right eyeB) Increased intracranial pressureC) Test was not performed accuratelyD) Normal response after a head injury

123a

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B) Increased intracranial pressure

Pages: 662-663. In a brain-injured person, a sudden,unilateral, dilated, and nonreactive pupil is ominous.Cranial nerve III runs parallel to the brainstem. Whenincreasing intracranial pressure pushes thebrainstem down (uncal herniation), it puts pressureon cranial nerve III, causing pupil dilation. The otherresponses are incorrect.

123b

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124. The nurse knows that determining whether aperson is oriented to his or her surroundings willtest the functioning of which of these structures?

A) CerebrumB) CerebellumC) Cranial nervesD) Medulla oblongata

124a

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A) Cerebrum

Pages: 621-622 | Page: 660. The cerebralcortex is responsible for thought, memory,reasoning, sensation, and voluntarymovement. The other options structures arenot responsible for a person's level ofconsciousness.

124b

HESI Prep - Health Assessment - [PDF Document] (2024)
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